What fallacy is assuming something is the case because of past events












1















I'm sure this is a simple question. What I am referring to is disbelieving someone on Day 20 because they have lied every day previous to Day 20.



Another example is the boy who cried wolf. The 50th time he cries "Wolf!" nobody believes him.



As a matter of practicality it's perfectly reasonable to disbelieve someone on Day 20 or take the cry of "Wolf!" to be false, as we've established through experience that a person lies, and so we judge probabilities (unconsciously maybe) and choose not to believe them.



However I'm asking from a purely logical perspective. If a witness lies many times, their credibility is severely hurt, but it would technically be a fallacy to say their last testimony was a lie because:



1.The witness has lied ten times to 13 questions.

2.The witness has a tendency to lie.

3.The last statement from the witness is a lie. (invalid conclusion)



What comes to my mind is "hasty generalization". However "hasty generalization" is defined by Wikipedia as:




... a conclusion about all or many instances of a phenomenon that has
been reached on the basis of just one or just a few instances of that
phenomenon. It is an example of jumping to conclusions.
Faulty generalization (hasty)




Notice it says based on just one or just a few. I think this excludes my examples because the conclusion is not based on just one or few instances, but in some cases many, for example 30 instances.



I agree that it is "jumping to conclusions", but I feel there's a more accurate term for it. I feel there's a term for something like:




  • Just because it's happened in the past (even every time) doesn't mean it'll happen now (even though the odds are in favor it happening).


Also, I know this is related to the problem of induction, (You don't know that the sun will rise tomorrow), but that's not a name of a fallacy.









share



























    1















    I'm sure this is a simple question. What I am referring to is disbelieving someone on Day 20 because they have lied every day previous to Day 20.



    Another example is the boy who cried wolf. The 50th time he cries "Wolf!" nobody believes him.



    As a matter of practicality it's perfectly reasonable to disbelieve someone on Day 20 or take the cry of "Wolf!" to be false, as we've established through experience that a person lies, and so we judge probabilities (unconsciously maybe) and choose not to believe them.



    However I'm asking from a purely logical perspective. If a witness lies many times, their credibility is severely hurt, but it would technically be a fallacy to say their last testimony was a lie because:



    1.The witness has lied ten times to 13 questions.

    2.The witness has a tendency to lie.

    3.The last statement from the witness is a lie. (invalid conclusion)



    What comes to my mind is "hasty generalization". However "hasty generalization" is defined by Wikipedia as:




    ... a conclusion about all or many instances of a phenomenon that has
    been reached on the basis of just one or just a few instances of that
    phenomenon. It is an example of jumping to conclusions.
    Faulty generalization (hasty)




    Notice it says based on just one or just a few. I think this excludes my examples because the conclusion is not based on just one or few instances, but in some cases many, for example 30 instances.



    I agree that it is "jumping to conclusions", but I feel there's a more accurate term for it. I feel there's a term for something like:




    • Just because it's happened in the past (even every time) doesn't mean it'll happen now (even though the odds are in favor it happening).


    Also, I know this is related to the problem of induction, (You don't know that the sun will rise tomorrow), but that's not a name of a fallacy.









    share

























      1












      1








      1


      1






      I'm sure this is a simple question. What I am referring to is disbelieving someone on Day 20 because they have lied every day previous to Day 20.



      Another example is the boy who cried wolf. The 50th time he cries "Wolf!" nobody believes him.



      As a matter of practicality it's perfectly reasonable to disbelieve someone on Day 20 or take the cry of "Wolf!" to be false, as we've established through experience that a person lies, and so we judge probabilities (unconsciously maybe) and choose not to believe them.



      However I'm asking from a purely logical perspective. If a witness lies many times, their credibility is severely hurt, but it would technically be a fallacy to say their last testimony was a lie because:



      1.The witness has lied ten times to 13 questions.

      2.The witness has a tendency to lie.

      3.The last statement from the witness is a lie. (invalid conclusion)



      What comes to my mind is "hasty generalization". However "hasty generalization" is defined by Wikipedia as:




      ... a conclusion about all or many instances of a phenomenon that has
      been reached on the basis of just one or just a few instances of that
      phenomenon. It is an example of jumping to conclusions.
      Faulty generalization (hasty)




      Notice it says based on just one or just a few. I think this excludes my examples because the conclusion is not based on just one or few instances, but in some cases many, for example 30 instances.



      I agree that it is "jumping to conclusions", but I feel there's a more accurate term for it. I feel there's a term for something like:




      • Just because it's happened in the past (even every time) doesn't mean it'll happen now (even though the odds are in favor it happening).


      Also, I know this is related to the problem of induction, (You don't know that the sun will rise tomorrow), but that's not a name of a fallacy.









      share














      I'm sure this is a simple question. What I am referring to is disbelieving someone on Day 20 because they have lied every day previous to Day 20.



      Another example is the boy who cried wolf. The 50th time he cries "Wolf!" nobody believes him.



      As a matter of practicality it's perfectly reasonable to disbelieve someone on Day 20 or take the cry of "Wolf!" to be false, as we've established through experience that a person lies, and so we judge probabilities (unconsciously maybe) and choose not to believe them.



      However I'm asking from a purely logical perspective. If a witness lies many times, their credibility is severely hurt, but it would technically be a fallacy to say their last testimony was a lie because:



      1.The witness has lied ten times to 13 questions.

      2.The witness has a tendency to lie.

      3.The last statement from the witness is a lie. (invalid conclusion)



      What comes to my mind is "hasty generalization". However "hasty generalization" is defined by Wikipedia as:




      ... a conclusion about all or many instances of a phenomenon that has
      been reached on the basis of just one or just a few instances of that
      phenomenon. It is an example of jumping to conclusions.
      Faulty generalization (hasty)




      Notice it says based on just one or just a few. I think this excludes my examples because the conclusion is not based on just one or few instances, but in some cases many, for example 30 instances.



      I agree that it is "jumping to conclusions", but I feel there's a more accurate term for it. I feel there's a term for something like:




      • Just because it's happened in the past (even every time) doesn't mean it'll happen now (even though the odds are in favor it happening).


      Also, I know this is related to the problem of induction, (You don't know that the sun will rise tomorrow), but that's not a name of a fallacy.







      logic fallacies argumentation syllogism





      share












      share










      share



      share










      asked 2 hours ago









      ZebrafishZebrafish

      1415




      1415






















          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes


















          3














          I think I found something that comes close:



          Appeal to probability (Wikipedia)




          An appeal to probability (or appeal to possibility) is the logical fallacy of taking something for granted because it would probably be
          the case (or might possibly be the case).




          and




          An appeal to probability argues that, because something probably will
          happen, it is certain to happen.



          The fallacy is an informal fallacy.



          P1: X is probable.

          P2: (Unstated) Anything which is probable, is certain.

          C: X is certain.



          The fallaciousness of this line of logic should be apparent from the second, unstated premise (P2), which seems and is blatantly false.



          Appeal to Probability - Rational Wiki




          I was thinking along the lines of appeal to history or something, not sure if such a term exists. I'd still appreciate any more suggestions.






          share|improve this answer


























          • I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

            – Jishin Noben
            16 mins ago





















          1














          This is not a fallacy, just the old problem of induction. A case of hasty generalisation would be to conclud that the witness tends to lie, if you have observed it two times in a row.






          share|improve this answer
























          • I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

            – Zebrafish
            56 mins ago













          • @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

            – Jishin Noben
            38 mins ago













          • OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

            – Zebrafish
            33 mins ago













          • In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

            – Jishin Noben
            18 mins ago











          Your Answer








          StackExchange.ready(function() {
          var channelOptions = {
          tags: "".split(" "),
          id: "265"
          };
          initTagRenderer("".split(" "), "".split(" "), channelOptions);

          StackExchange.using("externalEditor", function() {
          // Have to fire editor after snippets, if snippets enabled
          if (StackExchange.settings.snippets.snippetsEnabled) {
          StackExchange.using("snippets", function() {
          createEditor();
          });
          }
          else {
          createEditor();
          }
          });

          function createEditor() {
          StackExchange.prepareEditor({
          heartbeatType: 'answer',
          autoActivateHeartbeat: false,
          convertImagesToLinks: false,
          noModals: true,
          showLowRepImageUploadWarning: true,
          reputationToPostImages: null,
          bindNavPrevention: true,
          postfix: "",
          imageUploader: {
          brandingHtml: "Powered by u003ca class="icon-imgur-white" href="https://imgur.com/"u003eu003c/au003e",
          contentPolicyHtml: "User contributions licensed under u003ca href="https://creativecommons.org/licenses/by-sa/3.0/"u003ecc by-sa 3.0 with attribution requiredu003c/au003e u003ca href="https://stackoverflow.com/legal/content-policy"u003e(content policy)u003c/au003e",
          allowUrls: true
          },
          noCode: true, onDemand: true,
          discardSelector: ".discard-answer"
          ,immediatelyShowMarkdownHelp:true
          });


          }
          });














          draft saved

          draft discarded


















          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f59900%2fwhat-fallacy-is-assuming-something-is-the-case-because-of-past-events%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown

























          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes








          2 Answers
          2






          active

          oldest

          votes









          active

          oldest

          votes






          active

          oldest

          votes









          3














          I think I found something that comes close:



          Appeal to probability (Wikipedia)




          An appeal to probability (or appeal to possibility) is the logical fallacy of taking something for granted because it would probably be
          the case (or might possibly be the case).




          and




          An appeal to probability argues that, because something probably will
          happen, it is certain to happen.



          The fallacy is an informal fallacy.



          P1: X is probable.

          P2: (Unstated) Anything which is probable, is certain.

          C: X is certain.



          The fallaciousness of this line of logic should be apparent from the second, unstated premise (P2), which seems and is blatantly false.



          Appeal to Probability - Rational Wiki




          I was thinking along the lines of appeal to history or something, not sure if such a term exists. I'd still appreciate any more suggestions.






          share|improve this answer


























          • I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

            – Jishin Noben
            16 mins ago


















          3














          I think I found something that comes close:



          Appeal to probability (Wikipedia)




          An appeal to probability (or appeal to possibility) is the logical fallacy of taking something for granted because it would probably be
          the case (or might possibly be the case).




          and




          An appeal to probability argues that, because something probably will
          happen, it is certain to happen.



          The fallacy is an informal fallacy.



          P1: X is probable.

          P2: (Unstated) Anything which is probable, is certain.

          C: X is certain.



          The fallaciousness of this line of logic should be apparent from the second, unstated premise (P2), which seems and is blatantly false.



          Appeal to Probability - Rational Wiki




          I was thinking along the lines of appeal to history or something, not sure if such a term exists. I'd still appreciate any more suggestions.






          share|improve this answer


























          • I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

            – Jishin Noben
            16 mins ago
















          3












          3








          3







          I think I found something that comes close:



          Appeal to probability (Wikipedia)




          An appeal to probability (or appeal to possibility) is the logical fallacy of taking something for granted because it would probably be
          the case (or might possibly be the case).




          and




          An appeal to probability argues that, because something probably will
          happen, it is certain to happen.



          The fallacy is an informal fallacy.



          P1: X is probable.

          P2: (Unstated) Anything which is probable, is certain.

          C: X is certain.



          The fallaciousness of this line of logic should be apparent from the second, unstated premise (P2), which seems and is blatantly false.



          Appeal to Probability - Rational Wiki




          I was thinking along the lines of appeal to history or something, not sure if such a term exists. I'd still appreciate any more suggestions.






          share|improve this answer















          I think I found something that comes close:



          Appeal to probability (Wikipedia)




          An appeal to probability (or appeal to possibility) is the logical fallacy of taking something for granted because it would probably be
          the case (or might possibly be the case).




          and




          An appeal to probability argues that, because something probably will
          happen, it is certain to happen.



          The fallacy is an informal fallacy.



          P1: X is probable.

          P2: (Unstated) Anything which is probable, is certain.

          C: X is certain.



          The fallaciousness of this line of logic should be apparent from the second, unstated premise (P2), which seems and is blatantly false.



          Appeal to Probability - Rational Wiki




          I was thinking along the lines of appeal to history or something, not sure if such a term exists. I'd still appreciate any more suggestions.







          share|improve this answer














          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer








          edited 19 mins ago


























          community wiki





          2 revs
          Zebrafish














          • I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

            – Jishin Noben
            16 mins ago





















          • I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

            – Jishin Noben
            16 mins ago



















          I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

          – Jishin Noben
          16 mins ago







          I think answering you own question is fine. This fallacy, I would say, applies to the 13 out of 20 case, but not so much to the boy-wolf and day 21 cases. These are valid inductive inferences.

          – Jishin Noben
          16 mins ago













          1














          This is not a fallacy, just the old problem of induction. A case of hasty generalisation would be to conclud that the witness tends to lie, if you have observed it two times in a row.






          share|improve this answer
























          • I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

            – Zebrafish
            56 mins ago













          • @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

            – Jishin Noben
            38 mins ago













          • OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

            – Zebrafish
            33 mins ago













          • In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

            – Jishin Noben
            18 mins ago
















          1














          This is not a fallacy, just the old problem of induction. A case of hasty generalisation would be to conclud that the witness tends to lie, if you have observed it two times in a row.






          share|improve this answer
























          • I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

            – Zebrafish
            56 mins ago













          • @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

            – Jishin Noben
            38 mins ago













          • OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

            – Zebrafish
            33 mins ago













          • In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

            – Jishin Noben
            18 mins ago














          1












          1








          1







          This is not a fallacy, just the old problem of induction. A case of hasty generalisation would be to conclud that the witness tends to lie, if you have observed it two times in a row.






          share|improve this answer













          This is not a fallacy, just the old problem of induction. A case of hasty generalisation would be to conclud that the witness tends to lie, if you have observed it two times in a row.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 1 hour ago









          Jishin NobenJishin Noben

          39516




          39516













          • I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

            – Zebrafish
            56 mins ago













          • @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

            – Jishin Noben
            38 mins ago













          • OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

            – Zebrafish
            33 mins ago













          • In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

            – Jishin Noben
            18 mins ago



















          • I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

            – Zebrafish
            56 mins ago













          • @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

            – Jishin Noben
            38 mins ago













          • OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

            – Zebrafish
            33 mins ago













          • In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

            – Jishin Noben
            18 mins ago

















          I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

          – Zebrafish
          56 mins ago







          I appreciate your answer. Hasty generalization is described as a fallacy both in the fallacy and faulty generalization articles in Wikipedia, as well as in other sources. I'm not sure if you're saying it's not a fallacy. Also, I'm not sure concluding the witness tends to lie is a hasty generalization, I believe the final conclusion that the last testimony was a lie is a hasty generalization. I might be wrong.

          – Zebrafish
          56 mins ago















          @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

          – Jishin Noben
          38 mins ago







          @Zebrafish Hasty generalisation is a fallacy. But if you conclude that on day 21 someone is lying if you have observed him to do so the 20 days before is not fallacious. You cannot know for certain, but that is the problem of induction. It is definitely no logical fallacy, since nobody claims that there is a logical connection.

          – Jishin Noben
          38 mins ago















          OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

          – Zebrafish
          33 mins ago







          OK, understood. But let's just say they lied on 13 of the 20 days, I found it hard to believe that concluding someone is lying because they've lied on 2 or 3 occasions out of a possible 20 is a fallacy (the hasty generalization), but 13 lies out of 20 isn't a fallacy (even though it's not hasty). Also, I posted an answer that I think is close. What do you think of it? Edit: Damn, whenever I type @JishinNoben it disappears.

          – Zebrafish
          33 mins ago















          In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

          – Jishin Noben
          18 mins ago





          In the 13 out of 20 case, it depends on what exactly the conclusion is: If the conclusion is "they always lie", that is an invalid (inductive) inference. If the conclusion is "they lie at time 21", you could call it appeal to probability. But it could also mean: "they are likely to lie, the might do so today, do we want to risk relying on them?" and there is no fallacy. Pragmatics should be taken into account when identifying an informal fallacy.

          – Jishin Noben
          18 mins ago


















          draft saved

          draft discarded




















































          Thanks for contributing an answer to Philosophy Stack Exchange!


          • Please be sure to answer the question. Provide details and share your research!

          But avoid



          • Asking for help, clarification, or responding to other answers.

          • Making statements based on opinion; back them up with references or personal experience.


          To learn more, see our tips on writing great answers.




          draft saved


          draft discarded














          StackExchange.ready(
          function () {
          StackExchange.openid.initPostLogin('.new-post-login', 'https%3a%2f%2fphilosophy.stackexchange.com%2fquestions%2f59900%2fwhat-fallacy-is-assuming-something-is-the-case-because-of-past-events%23new-answer', 'question_page');
          }
          );

          Post as a guest















          Required, but never shown





















































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown

































          Required, but never shown














          Required, but never shown












          Required, but never shown







          Required, but never shown







          Popular posts from this blog

          What are all the squawk codes?

          What are differences between VBoxVGA, VMSVGA and VBoxSVGA in VirtualBox?

          Hudsonelva